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9624 Gynaecology & Obstetrics

A 24-year-old woman appears at 8 weeks of pregnancy and reveals a history of pulmonary embolism 7 years ago during her first pregnancy She was treated with intravenous heparin followed by several months of oral warfarin (Coumadin) and has had no further evidence of thromboembolic disease for over 6 years. Which of the following statements about her current condition is true?

AHaving no evidence of disease for over 5 years means that the risk of thromboembolism is not greater than normal
BImpedance plethysmography is not a useful study to evaluate for deep venous thrombosis in pregnancy
CDoppler ultrasonography is not a useful technique to evaluate for deep venous thrombosis in pregnancy
DThe patient should be placed on low-dose heparin therapy throughout pregnancy and puerperium
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
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