62-year-old woman has postmenopausal bleeding after 13 years of menopause. She has hypeension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer: Hysterectomy
Description: The patient has been diagnosed endometrial adenocarcinoma on biopsy The next step is to perform a staging laparotomy which involves the following Total abdominal hysterctomy + bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy Peritoneal cytology Omentectomy + appendicectomy + peritoneal biopsy: for non endometroid cancer Selective pelvic and para aoic lymphadenectomy
Category:
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Get More
Subject Mock Tests
Practice with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects and improve your knowledge.
Attempt a mock test nowMock Exam
Take an exam with 100 random questions selected from all subjects to test your knowledge.
Coming SoonGet More
Subject Mock Tests
Try practicing mock tests with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects.
Attempt a mock test now