A 40 yr old female patient presents with a history of depressed mood, loss of appetite insomnia and no interest in surroundings for the past 1 yr. These symptoms followed soon after a business loss 1 yr back.Which of the following statements is true regarding the management of this patient

A 40 yr old female patient presents with a history of depressed mood, loss of appetite insomnia and no interest in surroundings for the past 1 yr. These symptoms followed soon after a business loss 1 yr back.Which of the following statements is true regarding the management of this patient –

A. No treatment is necessary as it is due to business loss

B. SSRI is the most efficacious of the available drugs

C. Antidepressant treatment based on the side effect profile of the durgs

D. Combination therapy of 2 antidepressant drugs

Correct Answer: Antidepressant treatment based on the side effect profile of the durgs

Description: The patient in question is presenting with persistent classical symptoms of depression and should be managed by antidepressant medications. There is no ideal antidepressant. The first choice is determined by the side effect profile that is least objectionable to the patient's physical status (patient preference)

Category: Psychiatry

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