A 32-year-old female with diabetes visits antenatal clinic at 6 weeks of amenorrhea. She has not been on any treatment. What is the first step in the management?
Correct Answer: Perform HbA1c
Description: Ans. is c, i.e. Perform HbA1cThe first step is to do HbA1c to check her glucose status and assess the risk of fetal congenital malformations.
Category:
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Get More
Subject Mock Tests
Practice with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects and improve your knowledge.
Attempt a mock test nowMock Exam
Take an exam with 100 random questions selected from all subjects to test your knowledge.
Coming SoonGet More
Subject Mock Tests
Try practicing mock tests with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects.
Attempt a mock test now