A 3 year old Boy presents with fever , dysuria and gross hematuria. Physical examination shows a prominent suprapubic area which is dull on percussion. Urinalysis reveals red blood cells but no proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis
Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valves
Description: A posterior urethral valve is an obstructing membrane in the posterior male urethra as a result of abnormal in utero development. It is the most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in male newborns. The disorder varies in degree, with mild cases presenting late due to milder symptoms. A posterior urethral valve is an obstructing membrane in the posterior male urethra as a result of abnormal in utero development. M/C cause of bladder outlet obstruction in newborns Classification Type I (M/C) Anterior fusing of the plicae colliculi, mucosal fins extending from the bottom of the verumontanum distally along the prostatic and membranous urethra Type II (Least common) Veical/longitudinal folds b/w verumontanum and proximal prostatic urethra and bladder neck Type III (Less common) Disc of tissue distal to verumontanum, also theorized to be a developmental anomaly of congenital urogenital remnants in the bulbar urethra Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
Category:
Pediatrics
Get More
Subject Mock Tests
Practice with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects and improve your knowledge.
Attempt a mock test nowMock Exam
Take an exam with 100 random questions selected from all subjects to test your knowledge.
Coming SoonGet More
Subject Mock Tests
Try practicing mock tests with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects.
Attempt a mock test now