A 19-year-old student presents to the university health service with lower abdominal pain and a painful swollen right knee. She denies any trauma to the knee. Pelvic examination is exquisitely painful and reveals an ill-defined thickening in the right and left adnexae. A vaginal discharge is noted. The patient is febrile (38.7degC/103degF). Examination of her right knee reveals an enlarged, tender, and warm joint. The WBC count is 18,500/mL (normal =4,000 to 11,000/mL). If untreated, which of the following would be the most likely complication in this patient?
Correct Answer: Tubo-ovarian abscess
Description: Gonorrhea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a Gram-negative diplococcus. The infection is a frequent cause of acute salpingitis and pelvic inflammatory disease. The organisms ascend through the cervix and the endometrial cavity, where they cause an acute endometritis. The bacteria then attach to mucosal cells in the fallopian tube and elicit an acute inflammatory reaction, which is confined to the mucosal surface (acute salpingitis). From the tubal lumen, the infection spreads to involve the ovary, sometimes resulting in a tubo-ovarian abscess. Systemic complications of gonorrhea include septicemia and septic arthritis. The healing process distorts and destroys the plicae of the fallopian tube, often leading to sterility. Infections by N. gonorrhoeae at other sites (choices A, B, C, and E) are rare.Diagnosis: Gonorrhea, pelvic inflammatory disease
Category:
Pathology
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