A 46-year-old male presents to OPD with diarrhea and abdominal pain. On ivestigations, it was found to be non-infective and you proceed with diphenoxylate therapy in this patient. Which of the following is the primary target for the drug you prescribed to this patient?
Correct Answer: Motility
Description: (Ref: Katzung 11/e p1080-1081) Diphenoxylate is an opioid; it binds to mu receptors in the GIT and slows motility.
Category:
Pharmacology
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