RamkaliBai, a 35 year old female presented with one year history of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhoea. She also had off and on headache her examination revealed bitemporal superior quadrantopia. Her fundus examination showed primary optic atrophy. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis in this case-
Correct Answer: Pituitary macroadenoma
Description: pituitary macroadenoma is a tumor of pituitary gland .it causes excessive prolactin secretion causing galactorrhea and inhibit GnRH causing FSH and LH abnormality and also singns of CNS compression causing visual field defects ( Harrison 17 pg 2206 )
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