A 30 year old male patient who has taking haloperidol for the past 1 month is brought to the emergency department with a temperature of 103.5degF, blood pressure of 176/100 mmHg, rigidity and confusion. Which one of the following seems to be the most likely possibility?
Correct Answer: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Description: Ans. B. Neuroleptic malignant syndromeNeuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening reaction that can occur in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication. Symptoms include high fever, confusion, rigid muscles, variable blood pressure, sweating, and fast heart rate. Complications may include rhabdomyolysis, high blood potassium, kidney failure, or seizures.Any medications within the family of neuroleptics can cause the condition, though typical antipsychotics appear to have a higher risk than atypicals. Onset is often within a few weeks of starting the medication but can occur at any time. Risk factors include dehydration, agitation, and catatonia. Rapidly decreasing the use of levodopa may also trigger the condition.
Category:
Psychiatry
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