A 25-year-old woman is being evaluated for chronic fatigue. She has a history of heavy menstrual periods since menarche and also recalls frequent nosebleeds as a child. Her past medical history is otherwise insignificant and she takes no medications. Laboratory studies show normal prothrombin time (PT), activated paial thromboplastin time (APTT), platelet count and fibrinogen levels. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: Von Willebrand disease type 1
Description: Hypofibrinogemia Patient will low level of fibrinogen Factor IX deficiency Clotting factor deficiency APTT value is abnormal Rare in females Immune thrombocytopenia Platelet count will be low Von Willebrand disease Most common cause of inherited bleeding disorder One of the common causes of pubey menorrhagia PT, platelet count and fibrinogen levels will be normal APTT will be normal or mildly increased in type 1, types 2A, 2B, 2M APTT will be significantly increased in type 2N, type 3 VWF antigen and activity will be reduced leading to bleeding symptoms Function of VWF - Adhesion of platelets and increase half life of factor 8
Category:
Pathology
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