A Woman, 29 yrs, married for 3 years, unable to conceive, has regular menstrual cycles, mild dysmenorrhea, Her pelvic scan shows an intramural fibroid of 3 cms and a follicular ovarian cyst A tubal assessment by HSG is normal as well. Husbands semen analysis is normal and so is his hormonal profile. Which of these is the most likely cause for infeility?

Correct Answer: Endometriosis
Description: HINTS TO DIAGNOSIS: A regular cycle almost rules out PCOD, Normal HSG , rules out tubal factor Fibroid is too small to be significant Male factor infeility is ruled out Young woman with infeility with regular menstrual cycles, normal pelvic imaging and normospermic paner with or without Dysmenorrhea satisfies the criteria of Un-explained Infeility and the prevalence of endometriosis in such cases is as high as 50 %.
Share:

Get More
Subject Mock Tests

Practice with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects and improve your knowledge.

Attempt a mock test now
Mock Exam

Take an exam with 100 random questions selected from all subjects to test your knowledge.

Coming Soon
Get More
Subject Mock Tests

Try practicing mock tests with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects.

Attempt a mock test now
Mock Exam

Attempt an exam of 100 questions randomly chosen from all subjects.

Coming Soon
WordPress › Error

There has been a critical error on this website.

Learn more about troubleshooting WordPress.