A young male presents with painless loss of vision with IOP of 60mm Hg. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: Glaucomatocyclitic crisis
Description: GLAUCOMATOCYCLITIC CRISIS Clinical features - Recurrent unilateral attacks of acute rise of intraocular pressure (40-50 mm of Hg) without shallowing of anterior chamber associated with. Since there is no pain thus angle closure glaucoma and acute anterior uveitis are ruled out. Loss of visual acuity occurs in papilloedema in very late stages when optic atrophy occurs and not associated with such high intraocular pressure.
Category:
Ophthalmology
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