A 67-year-old man presents with sudden left leg pain, absence of pulses, and a cold limb. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and a small aortic aneurysm. Which of the following is most likely responsible for development of a cold limb in this patient?
Correct Answer: Arterial thromboembolism
Description: Embolism of an artery of the leg leads to sudden pain, absence of pulses, and a cold limb. In some cases, the limb must be amputated. None of the other choices would cause this clinical presentation. Ruptured aortic aneurysm (choice E) presents with pain, shock, and a pulsatile mass in the abdomen.Diagnosis: Arterial thromboembolism
Category:
Pathology
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