A 7-year-old boy presents with palpable non-blanching rash starting 3 days back from the ankles and involves lower limbs and buttocks. He had viral URTI previously. BP is normal and KFT is normal. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Description: Ans. (a) Henoch-Schonlein purpura.* The presence of normal KFT and normal BP means GFR is unaffected. With purpura involving the ankles, lower limbs following a URTI, IgA deposition in dermal blood vessels indicates the presence of Henoch-schonlein purpura.* Hemolytic uremic syndrome is ruled out due to normal KFT.Image source. style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; color: rgba(0, 0, 0, 1); font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 8pt">
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