A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with increasing dyspepsia and weight loss. He has not experienced any other GI symptoms and physical examination is unremarkable. A barium meal is performed with the administration of intravenous Buscopan. The oesophagus is normal in appearance but a ‘bull&;s eye’ lesion is noted in the gastric mucosa. Which one of the following is not a recognised cause of this appearance?
Correct Answer: Magenstrasse
Description: Magenstrasse refers to the normal longitudinal mucosal folds seen adjacent to the lesser curve of the stomach during a barium meal. The 'bull&;s eye' appearance seen during a barium meal is due to a central ulcer in an elevated area of submucosa. A GIST may well have this appearance and neurofibromatosis can cause single or multiple target lesions. Melanoma is the commonest cause of submucosal gastric metastases.
Category:
Radiology
Get More
Subject Mock Tests
Practice with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects and improve your knowledge.
Attempt a mock test nowMock Exam
Take an exam with 100 random questions selected from all subjects to test your knowledge.
Coming SoonGet More
Subject Mock Tests
Try practicing mock tests with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects.
Attempt a mock test now